I am 24 and I have an sickness. I often hear my mother talk about how God will heal you where is this in the bible? I also here older people talk about how you dispose to wait on God to send you some one...is this in the bible somewhere. What section talks about marriage?
Your question concerning God healing you or sending someone to you and where it is found in the Bible has been received and I will attempt to give you a sensible answer. The Bible nowhere makes such promises. It does teach us to pray and make requests of God, but always make such requests with the provision, "If it is God's will." No miraculous healing is done today because the need for miracles ceased when the scriptures had been completely revealed. Before they were revealed and written down, the apostles and other preachers of the Word were enabled to work miracles to prove that their message came from God so when the Bible was completely revealed miracles ceased. In James 5:16 it says, "Confess your faults one to another, and pray one for another, that you may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man avails much."
There are many passages of scripture concerning marriage, and it would be impossible to list all of them in this e-mail. Some passages you might like to read are Matthew 19:1-9; Mark 10:2-12; Romans 7:1-3.
I Believe in the Lord with all my heart, but I don't have a church home. Is that a sin not to have one?
In regard to your query in which you stated your believed in the Lord with all your heart but you did not have a church home and wanted to know if that was a sin. It takes more than just believing with all your heart to be saved. In Acts chapter two when Peter preached the first gospel sermon after Jesus' ascension into heaven. He told the crowd assembled, "that God has made that same Jesus, whom you have cricified, both Lord and Christ." The next verse states, "Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do? Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost" (Acts 2:36-38). When it says they were pricked in their heart it simply means they truly believed with all their heart the things Peter had told them in the sermon, but they still were not saved. They had yet to obey the Lord. Drop down to verse 41 and note: "Then they that gladly received his word were baptized (immersed): and the same day there were added unto them 3,000 souls." Then drop down to verse 47 and you will see that the Lord added to the church on a daily basis those that were being saved. There is in your city one or more congregations of the church of Christ that will baptized you for the remission of sins and the Lord will add you automatically to the church. The church is composed of those people who have been saved from their sins through obedience to the gospel of Christ. If you will read carefully the book of Acts of the Apostles you will notice numerous instances of persons becoming obedient believers.
The whole process consists of hearing the gospel, believing in Jesus as the Son of God, confessing such faith, repenting of one's sins and being baptized (original meaning of the word translated baptize is immerse or bury). These steps being completed puts one into Christ and a member of His church. We will be happy to help you locate a church home if you so desire. You need to become a part of a local church where you can worship and serve the Lord with other Christians. They can be a source of encouragement and you can be fellow servants together.
I am having medical problems in my life. What does the bible say about having many medical problems? I have scoliosis, wrist problems, and epilepsy.
The Bible is actually silent on the subject of medical problems. All through the Bible and especially in the New Testament we find person ill with a variety or diseases. These are naturally occurring events that may come upon anyone. God does not send such on an individual as punishment for sins. These things come upon the righteous as well as the unrighteous. Some of the most righteous persons I know have grievous diseases. The only thing we can do whch such things occur is get the best medical attention we can and pray for God to help us through it all.
I have an apologetics question regarding a Jewish objection to the Messiah-ship of Jesus.
They claim that under the Biblical law of Christ’s day and under modern Jewish law, tribal affiliation is conferred through the birth father only (for which they cite Numbers 34:14, Numbers 1:18-44, Leviticus 24:10 as “proof”). Thus, they claim, that since Jesus had no human father, he had no tribal affiliation. Therefore, they reason that Jesus was not from the tribe of Judah and is eliminated from messianic consideration in their view. They also use this as an example of an alleged “flaw” in Christian theology.
They further claim that tribal affiliation could not be conferred through adoption and thus adopted sons could not inherit their step-father's genealogy and that tribal affiliation could not be transferred through the mother. Of course, not being an expert on this subject, I'm not sure if this is true or not.
I understand that the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14 clearly says that a Virgin would give birth and that this is obviously speaking of the Messiah, but how can this be reconciled with tribal affiliation coming from the birth father, and the requirement of the Messiah being of the tribe of Judah and a descendant of David?
This is indeed an interesting question. The more we think about it the matter finally becomes: What did the Old Testament teach on this matter of inheritance? Did inheritance descend "through the birth father only?" We do not know about the inheritance rule(s) in Jesus day; nor do I know about the rules of modern Jewish law. It is clear at least to the best we have able to discern it, that inheritance [and thus ownership of land according to the distribution of land in ancient Israel] could and did pass thru as daughter or daughters as well as sons.
The case of the daughters of Zelophehad is in point: Numbers 27:1-8 KJV. It appears that these verses clearly show:
1. The case was decided by the revelation of God
2. The inheritance passed from the dead father to the daughters. This was the work of God; not the work of the Jewish nation in terms of the people deciding by their representatives what should be done.
3. The birth of Jesus did not entail a human father; the Holy Spirit was the means of bringing about the pregnancy of Mary (Luke 1:26-35).
4. The Jewish law in the time of Jesus was not equal with the law of God however much the Jewish Sanhedrin or other official body said this or that. Jesus had several encounters with these official spokesmen and was shown to be right in every instance wherein their views contradicted the Old Testament scriptures
5. The facts, as stated, show the "arguments" advanced are in fact evasions of truth and mere smoke screens to quibble.
I was doing my daily bible study and came across the topic of communion/sacrament. I was a little confused cause it made it seem like, if we have not been baptized and have not become a member of the church the communion is basically doing us no good... Could you clear this up and give scripture support for it?
To answer your question we must start with Jesus' institution of the what is commonly called the Lord's Supper or communion- Matthew 26.26-29, Mark 14.22-25, and Luke 22.14-20. In all three passages, our Lord makes mention of His not eating the bread or drinking the fruit of the vine until the coming of the kingdom. Keep in mind that Jesus had also recently promised that Peter and others would be given the keys of the kingdom (Matthew 16.19). It seems to emphasize that the idea of communing with Jesus in the partaking of the unleavened bread and fruit of the vine should be done "in the kingdom." We know that the church of the First Century did this. In 1Corinthians 11, Paul discussed the abuse of the Lord's Supper and in Acts 20.7 we find that the disciples came together on the first day of the week to "break bread." This was a euphemism for the Lord's Supper.
Several fundamental elements of the Lord's Supper include the one with whom the disciples commune, Jesus, the disciples, and the elements of the Lord's Supper. We know that the elements of the Lord's Supper were taken from the Jewish Passover. These are the unleavened bread which represents the body of Christ and the fruit of the vine (grape juice) which represents Jesus' blood. We understand that it is Jesus whom we remember as we commune with Him. We also can realize that it is His disciples who do the communing with Him.
So what is a disciple? A disciple is a follower and a subject of the kingdom. In order for one to be a disciple or follower of Christ one must be in Christ. Ephesians 1.3 tells us that all spiritual blessings are found in Christ. Partaking of the Lord's Supper and being in communion with Jesus is a spiritual blessing (1Corinthians 11.26). Just like the ones who partook of the Passover in the Old Testament had to be in a covenant relationship with God, so too must we be in a covenant relationship with God. The way that we come into a covenant relationship with God is by being in His kingdom, the church. The church is made up of disciples/ followers of Christ who have obeyed the gospel of Christ by hearing the word of God (Romans 10.17), believing the word of God (Hebrews 11.6), repenting of sins (Luke 13.3) confessing the name of Christ before men (Matthew 10.32), and being baptized for the remission of sins (Acts 2.38, I Peter 3.21, Romans 6.4). When we follow God's plan of salvation we are then added to the church - the kingdom/ the body of Christ (Acts 2.47, Colossians 1.13). Jesus told his disciples that He would eat the Lord's Supper again with them in the kingdom/ the church (Luke 22.14-20). So we must be in the kingdom/ church to commune with Christ in the Lord's Supper.
You were a very good student of the Bible to pick up on the fact that one must be a baptized believer, a disciple, a member of the church to partake of the communion. After all, this is the whole idea - the followers of Jesus commune with their Lord in the Lord's Supper. We learn that even Christians can take the Lord's Supper in a way that would bring them into sin. In 1Corinthians 11.27-29 we read that "Therefore whoever eats this bread or drinks this cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord." Those who are not in the church/ kingdom cannot partake in communion with Jesus. To do so would be to partake in an unworthy manner. The same could be true of members of the church. If one partakes of the Lord's supper in a profane manner or without focusing on the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ they sin by taking it in vain. In I Corinthians 11.20-29, the church at Corinth was guilty of making the Lord's Supper a common meal.
1. Many
people tell me that the LDS church is false and I would like to know what
the scripture back up is for that.
2. what is the chronological order of the bible? cause revelations wasn't
the last book written I heard.
3. Even if homosexuality is a sin, why do most Christians hate gays?
Shouldn't they try being compassionate and help them?
1. To determine if a church is true one must find it in the Bible, specifically in the New Testament. You cannot find the Latter Day Saints in the Bible. The New Testament only mentions the church that Jesus established (Matthew 16.16-18, Acts 20.28). This is the church which wears His name without any further qualification – for example Latter Day Saints. Since the LDS is not an authorized name of the people of God, it cannot be the true church. There is much more that could be discussed but, this is enough to show that the Latter Day Saints are not the church which Jesus established in the New Testament.
2. The chronological order
of the Bible is a subject of great discussion. There are about as many
differing views of when any given book was written as there are people to
write about it. As for when Revelation was written. Some believe it was
written just before 70 AD to encourage the Christians prior to the
destruction of
3. While it is true that God has always considered homosexuality a sin (Leviticus 18.22, 24 and 20.13, Romans 1.26-27, First Corinthians 6.9, and 1Timothy 1.8-10), it is not true that God wants any person to be eternally lost (Second Peter 3.9). Jesus came to “seek and save the lost” (Luke 19.10). As a Christian, I do not hate those who practice the sin of homosexuality. Any child of God who wants to be like Christ should desire that these individuals be saved.
Many confuse a firm stand against sin with hate of an individual. This simply is not the case. Look at a matter of opinion. If one person or group of people likes trucks exclusively, they would not want to be caught dead driving a sub-compact. They may even speak openly of their dislike for other vehicles. But, does this mean they hate those who drive sub-compacts just because they do not like that kind of vehicle? Of course not. But, what if we apply this to behaviors that go against our core beliefs? Just because a Christian accepts Biblical truth and does not believe that homosexuality is an acceptable lifestyle and vocalizes their abhorrence of that behavior does not mean that the Christian does not value the souls of those living in that sin. If one is trying to be like Christ, one would deeply desire that all people, no matter their current condition, be converted to Christ (Acts 3.19).
I am convinced that anyone wanting to change from the dark and sinful lifestyle of illicit sexual behaviors can with God’s help be changed. In First Corinthians 6.9, Paul states that those who practice homosexuality will not inherit heaven. Then in First Corinthians 6.11 Paul says these words of hope, “And such were some of you. But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God.” There were Christians in the First Century who had been practicing homosexuals but, repented of that wicked lifestyle and obeyed the commands of Christ and were made clean. They were washed in the blood of Jesus (Acts 22.16, Revelation 1.5). Romans 6.1-14 portrays the walk from the slavery and uncleanness of sin to the peace and sanctification of salvation. It starts with being united with Christ in baptism and learning to control our bodies and sensual urges. This is the hope of Christ – a new life.
If God is so loving then wouldn't he send us a prophet to help us in these troubling times we live in? The topics in the scriptures can apply to us today but they were written 2,000 years ago. Doesn't God have anything new for us before the 2nd coming? Also, when will the apostasy (if it already hasn't) occur that was mentioned in 2 Thessalonians 2? And last question(s) is: Throughout the Bible it keeps mentioning authority, and who has the rights to do certain things. Are women allowed to be pastors/preachers/bishops? And how does someone get the authority to preach today?
God utilized prophets before Christ came, but after Christ came he speaks only through Christ (Hebrews 1:1-3). Before Jesus left this earth He told His disciples, "It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you" (John 16:7). Then He goes on to say in verse 13, "Howbeit when he the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will show you things to come." The "Spirit of truth" he is talking about is the Holy Spirit. You will notice in Acts chapter 2 the Holy Spirit came upon the apostles and they began to speak in tongues (recognized languages) to the people who were assembled from many nations with different languages. The Spirit guided these men in the sermons they preached. At that time they did not have the Gospel of Christ in written form but it was being revealed to them by the Holy Spirit. Today we have no such revelations because the word of the Lord has been revealed in its completeness. (2 Timothy 3:16, 17). God's Word is ever up to date because the basic needs of man have not changed. We are all still human beings with the same inclinations and needs as they had 2,000 years ago. There are still only three avenues of sin, they are: Lust of the flesh, lust of the eyes and pride or vain glory of life. We may have a few different things that tempt us today, but they all fit in one of the three categories mentioned above. Furthermore if the scriptures as mentioned in 2 Timothy 3:16,17 are able to perfect a person they they would have to be perfect. You can not make anything perfect without a perfect standard and this passage of scripture indicates that the scriptures are that perfect standard. As to the apostasy, it has been occurring ever since Jesus ascended into heaven. It was happening in the days of the apostles as you will note in Galatian 5:4. Man does not completely apostatize all at once, it is a gradual process over a long period of time but apostasy is occurring today. When it is complete or seems so the Lord will come again to receive the faithful unto himself.
As to authority and who has it, Jesus said that all authority had been given unto Him in Matthew 28:18 and in the following verses says, "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost (Spirit): Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you; and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world." Please note that the apostles after they had baptized people into Christ, they were to teach the same people to teach others the same way they had been taught so that means that each convert to Christ needs to try to win other souls to Christ. Women are forbidden to teach or exercise authority over men (1 Timothy 2:9-15) so that keeps her from being a preacher, an elder (pastor or bishop) as elders or bishops are to have one wife and believing children. (1 Timothy 3:1 - 13; Titus 1: 5-9). Any male who becomes a Christian and wishes to preach can do so if he will do the studying of the word so that he becomes proficient in its use.
In the Lords prayer, please explain:
"Lead us not into temptation"
Would a loving God lead his children into temptation?
A petition similar to this is offered by David in Psalms
141:4: "Incline not my heart to any evil thing, to
practice wicked works with the workers of
iniquity." God tempts no man (James 1:13). This phrase, then, must be used
in the sense of permitting. Do not suffer us, or permit us, to be
tempted to sin. In this it is implied that God has
such control over the tempter as to save us from his
power if we call upon him. The word temptation,
however, means sometimes trial, affliction, anything that tests our virtue.
If this is the meaning here, as it may be, then the import of the
prayer is,
"Do not afflict or try us." It is not wrong to pray that we may be saved
from suffering if it be the will of God.
Why is purgatory believed by Catholics, since it is not in the bible?
The doctrine of Purgatory began in about the 4th Century A.D. with the sale of indulgencies (permission to commit sins) in order to raise money to build St. Peter's in Rome. They took an obscure passage from the Apocrypha to justify such doctrine. This of course allows the church to collect more funds by selling candles and prayers to get loved ones out of purgatory and into heaven. It produces a great amount of income for the church. They are not concerned with being biblically correct but rather what is upheld by church tradition.
Does is say in the Bible something about not letting your right hand know what you left had is doing?
Yes, it is found in Matthew 6:3.
Am I lost?
I was married for 10 years and we dated for 3 before
that. She left me a Dear John letter and now I find
she had here old boy friend
living down the street for months while they had a affair and when she moved
out she moved in with him. I thought our marriage was fine. I don't drink
or beat
her. I never saw it coming. We are in the divorce process.
I had to start this because of this action which is so unlike her. I begged
for weeks for her to reconsider her actions and we would get help. And
I tried to
repair the damage. Love is blind I guess.
Where does this leave me now in the eyes of God. I
didn't want this. I didn't ask for this. I still love
her. But I can see that she is destined to live her life as she has chosen.
When can I start to see a lady and it be right in the eyes of the lord. I mean
I am not sure. I know it sounds stupid. But if you still love someone deeply.
Even though they hurt you. I am not sure when its morally right for me to move
ahead with my life since I was cast aside. I wanted to be married and enjoy
the deep connection we had. But I too would like to have someone who is
willing to dedicate themselves. I want to once again find a partner that
wants to be a team.
According to what you say she has committed fornication which allows you to divorce her and be married to someone who will be faithful to the marriage bond (Matthew 19:9). However, you would need to find someone who is eligible to marry. Some persons who have been divorced are not eligible to marry again. If they committed fornication against their former spouse, or if that person was divorced for any other reason other than unfaithfulness on the part of the former spouse they are not eligible to marry again in the sight of God. As soon as your divorce is final you could begin to keep company with other people, but it would not be proper at all until the divorce is final. Be sure the other person has a right to marry, and let the courtship be long enough until you know each other well, and be sure that that person believes in the permanence of the marriage vow. Another thing to remember, there should be no sexual involvement with anyone you date until after you are married to that person. There are many single persons who have never married and there are widows who would be eligible to marry, but be careful about any relationships or marriage to anyone who has been married and divorced. As you will notice in Matthew 19 if the divorce has been for any other cause other than fornication then that person is not eligible to marry again. And, if you marry someone who is not eligible to marry then both of you will be lost in eternity. I extend my sympathy to you in what you are experiencing, and wish you success as you pursue a future marriage.
I am a member of the church, I am conducting a weekly bible study with a group of twelve people. I have been asked to answer questions about "demon possession" in our study of Matthew. I could sure use some help!
If you will note, there are no verifiable accounts of demon
possession since the first century, and you will
recall that when the demons saw Jesus they
recognized him and referred to him as the Son of God (case in point the
Gadarene Demoniac (Matthew 8:28-34; Mark 5:1-20; Luke 8:26-30).
Apparently the demons were the spirits of evil men
that had been able to escape the Hadean world and
make a forced entry into living persons and then took
control of their bodies. The Christ had existed in the spirit world
before coming to earth (John 1:1-4, 14) and thus
they recognized Him as being the Son of God. They
were powerless against Him and when he commanded them to
come out of the persons they were afflicting they could not resist him.
When Christ died and re-entered the Spirit realm and rose from the dead he bound Satan and the Hadean world so that there was no more escaping the Hadean realm thus ending demon possession. In the first century when the apostles came upon anyone possessed with demons they sent them back to the Hadean realm and since none could escape that realm, demon possession has ceased to exist. Demon possession was different from epileptic seizures and other similar physical ailments so we cannot call those cases of demon possession. You will note that in Revelation 20:1-3 that Satan was cast into the bottomless pit or abyss and that a seal was set upon it meaning there was no escaping. Satan still has influence and power but such is greatly diminished. Example: A vicious dog chained is still vicious but his sphere of action is confined to the length of the chain. Satan cannot force man to do anything, but he may entice and encourage us to come close, but it is up to us. When we get within his grasp he has us. Since the abyss or bottomless pit has been sealed no evil spirits can escape to take over the bodies and minds of men.
According to Genesis 27:26 -27 who received the first kiss?
The one who received the kiss in this instance was Isaac from Jacob.
When you get to heaven, do you forget your friends and enemies?
There is no way to know how much we are going to recall if we
get to heaven, however, notice in Matthew that we
will give account of every idle word spoken when we
get to the judgment scene. If we will be able to recall
improper speech we should be able to remember other occurrences in our
lives. If we have made enemies because of our own sins and we have not
taken the proper steps to get forgiveness we will not get to heaven. We
will certainly have no enemies in heaven. There will be no sorrows,
tears, heartaches, disappointments, etc. in heaven.
Our spiritual brothers and sisters will be our
friends in heaven, and if our earthly friends on earth
were Christians and we all get to heaven there should be no reason we
should forget them. We need to remember, however,
that those who get to heaven will be spirit beings
and not flesh and blood, so we will not know one
another in the same manner as her on earth but will recognize one another by
spiritual characteristics.
I would like to see a bible study on the mind. how to renew your mind. I have trouble in this area and I like to have a lesson about this. I don't read the word and I would like to get started.
If you are really interested in renewing the mind you will of
necessity have to begin a serious study of the Word
of God (the Bible). The apostle Paul told Timothy to
study to show himself approved unto God (2 Timothy 2:15).
The process of studying to be approved in the sight of God will
automatically lead to a renewing of the mind. It will give you
direction and lead you to a more fulfilling and
rewarding life both now and in the hereafter.
The word 'Paradise' is referred to a few times in the bible. I always understood that this was a tempory waiting place for those who are saved and die. Is this true? If not, what is paradise? I also studied that we will all go into heaven together, after Christ's second coming. Please explain.
The word "paradise" is used only three times in the New
Testament and in Luke 23:43 when Jesus told the
thief, "This day thou shalt be with me in
paradise" it was not heaven to which He was referring, but rather the place
in the invisible world where those who are accepted of God await the
resurrection. Jesus had not gone to heaven when He arose from the dead
because he told Mary Magdalene in the Garden that he had not yet
ascended to the Father. In Revelation 2:7 it clearly
has reference to heaven, and in 2 Corinthians 12:4
it has reference to a place of supreme blessedness. Yes,
we will all be raised from the dead at the same time in John 5:28,29 Jesus
says, the hour is coming in which all the dead will come forth from the
grave, the good are raised to the resurrection of life (spiritual life
in heaven) and the evil unto the resurrection of
damnation. All the righteous will get there at the
same time.
There is a song that I use to sing as a little girl and it said that Jesus was the blond of Galilee and I remember reading that he had blue eyes...
There are no such references in the Bible that so state that Jesus was blonde or had blue eyes. That is something man has manufactured.
Explain Adam and Eve and how their sons were able to marry - where did the other people come from? Why are there two versions of creation in Genesis
The sons of Adam and Eve married their sisters. While that is not done today close relatives married in ancient times. In fact Sarah the wife of Abraham was his own half-sister. At that time the blood line was pure and the infirmities of the flesh had not developed as they are today. Today too much intermarriage magnifies the weaknesses of the bloodline as well as the strengths. In most societies today close family kin are not allowed to marry due to the genetic weaknesses that creep in and actually destroys the bloodline eventually. As to the two accounts of creation in Genesis, the second accounting in Genesis chapter two fills in the details that were not mentioned in Genesis one.
I teach a Sunday School class for
ages 15-19 and it is always fun to try to find
things that will keep them interested in the lessons and wanting to
know more. So I suggested that they write down some questions they have
about the Bible and I would try my best to reach and find some answers
for them. I have one student who has asked me a
question and I am stumped. I hope you will be able
to help me out. Our last Sunday School lesson was on
Elijah and how he called down the fire of God on the sacrifice and not so
long after, ran for the fear of his life. His question was this (after
reading 1 Kings 19:5), why does the Bible always use the phrase "all
at once" or "at once"? I know this sounds like a
simple question, but I really don't want to steer
him in the wrong direction. Is there any way you can
help me or at least steer me in the right direction?
We do not see any real significance to the wording "at once" which is only found in the NIV as far as we know. It is not so rendered in the KJV, the NKJV or the American Standard Version. The term used in those versions is "behold" then an angel touched him. It simply indicates there was little or no delay in the action of the angel. There was no forewarning but quickly in response to Elijah's request God responded so that would justify the use of "at once".
I wish to seek your clarification regarding the baptism recorded in Acts 2:41. 3,000 souls were baptized by the Apostles on the same day. There were 11 Apostles (Judas had committed suicide). If the baptismal candidates were evenly distributed among the Apostles, each Apostle would have to baptize at least 270 souls during that day. If it took about 3 or 4 minutes to baptize each person, then each Apostle would have to spend about 14 hours non-stop at his task. If there wasn't a pool large enough to baptize 11 persons at one time, then it would have taken more than 14 hours to complete the whole task. Did the Apostles baptize the 3,000 in the Pool of Siloam or Pool of Bethesda? It wasn't recorded that the Apostles & the 3,000 persons went for baptism in the river Jordan which is about 20 miles away from Jerusalem. So was the 3,000 REALLY baptized by water (completely submerged) or by the outpouring of the Holy Spirit?
There were 12 apostles at this time because one Matthias by name had been chosen you will note in Acts 1 to take Judas' place. There would have been no trouble in baptizing that many people as each person baptized could in turn have baptized someone themselves, furthermore there was more than one pool in Jerusalem that could have been utilized for the baptisms. It would not take over a minute or so for each baptism so there is only an imagined problem in baptizing that many people. Just believe what the scripture says. Having been to Jerusalem a few times and seeing the pools that were in existence and some of them still in use we see no problem in the Biblical account.
I am led to believe that
Mary Magdala was a prostitute.
Where in the bible is this?
Also in Luke 7:37-39 it states that this woman was sinful and
I have been
led to believe that she was a prostitute. Is this
Mary Magdala
You must be talking about Mary Magdalene and there is not a shred of evidence in the scripture that she was a prostitute. We only note that she at one time had been possessed of seven evil spirits or demons. This was no fault of hers and it is stated in Luke 8:2 that she had been healed of that affliction. You will not find anything in the Bible that indicates that Mary Magdalene was an immoral woman. The passage you cite does not mention a woman by name but simply that she was known to be a sinful woman. We do the Bible an injustice when we begin to insert something in the text that is not there to begin with, in fact it is sinful. In Deuteronomy 4:2; Proverbs 30:5,6 and Revelation 22:18,19 we are warned about adding to or subtracting from the Word of God.
Can you please explain to me the significance of the different gates that are mentioned in Nehemiah. And how does this apply to us today Spiritually?
There is really no significance at all to the various gates mentioned in Nehemiah. Each gate was given a name so that they could easily make reference to which gate at which to meet or where danger lurked or something similar. They were given names simply as reference points. We number highways and even name some of them as well as we name bridges and other such structures primarily as reference points but at times to honor someone. Most of the gates of Jerusalem were given names according to their function, direction, or prominent city they faced, etc. There is absolutely was no spiritual significance to them at all then or now.
Did Abraham leave his fathers home immediately when God commanded him to go.
We are not told in the scriptures how quickly Abram acted on God's command to leave his homeland and go to a country that God would show him (Genesis 12:1,2). But seeing how Abram always promptly obeyed God we should not think he delayed his departing for any length of time, but left as soon as he could.
Are dinosaurs mentioned in the Bible? If not, why?
No, dinosaurs are not specifically mentioned, however, that
does not mean they did not exist. We find multitudes
of other creatures that are not mentioned. There are
several winged fowl that are not called by name
neither is an Armadillo. It may be listed by some other name other than
dinosaur, it really doesn't matter. We know dinosaurs existed at one
point
in time and eventually they became extinct as have numerous other species.
Just because we do not find the word dinosaur mentioned in the Bible is
no reason not to believe they never existed.
What does the Bible say about Christians suing other Christians?
In first Corinthians 6:1,2 Paul makes it plain that Christians should not go to law against a fellow Christian before unbelieving judges. Such matters should be settled before wise men in the church.
Did Jesus misbehave or pay no respect when he disappeared without the permission of his parents by staying in the temple causing them to look for him? Luke 2:41-48
No Jesus did not misbehave, Joseph and Mary erred in just taking it for granted that Jesus was with the other or with other children on the trip until evening of that first day and discovered he was not in the caravan. Note that Jesus told Mary that he had to be about His Father's business, meaning the Father in heaven. They were amazed at his knowledge and perception at the time and there was no further scolding as it had first appeared he was going to receive. He realized at an early age what His responsibilities were on this earth.
Why does the Catholic Bible have more
books than the NIV? Are these books inspired? Why or
why not? Who determines which books should be in the
Bible?
The Catholic Bible has more books because they decided to include the books
of the apocrypha in their Bible. There are various reasons they want to
include them but one of the reasons is that one of the apocryphal books
is the only place they can begin to find
justification for their doctrine of purgatory. The
apocryphal books were rejected by Biblical scholars
centuries ago because they do not meet the criteria to be included in the
canon. Biblical scholars (sometimes called the "early church fathers")
many centuries ago established criteria to determine inspiration of the
scriptures and the apocryphal books did not measure up to those
standards. One of the measuring tools was the
testimony of the churches to which many of the New
Testament books had been addressed. They could testify to the
geniuses of the particular book. When you study the books of the
Apocrypha you can readily determine yourself that
they are not the quality of work that you find in
what is generally accepted in the religious world in
general as the Word of God. The apocryphal books in some instances are
excellent historical books, but not scripture and others are scarcely
more than fairy tales.
When was the first pope elected?
Was it Peter?
No, Peter was not the first Pope. Peter was a married man, an apostle and
an elder in the church in Jerusalem, but He was certainly not a Pope.
In the fifth century we have the bishop of
Rome becoming the first Pope.
Has the Roman Catholic church existed since the first century?
The Roman Catholic Church is the result of apostasy of the
original New Testament church. Teachers, preachers
and church leaders gradually digressed from the
original New Testament Church. In the New Testament we
note that churches were to be independent of each other, each
congregation was autonomous, and leaders in one
congregation had no authority over another
congregation. They gradually left the New Testament pattern and
made their own rules and regulations and there arose one of the elders
or bishops in a congregation that had more power or
authority than the other
elders in the congregation and then eventually one elder or bishop in a
given area would become the most powerful bishop or elder in a given
locale until we had one person exercising almost
complete control over a huge area. This kept
on spreading until finally in the fifth century we have the bishop
of Rome becoming the first Pope. From that,
there have been too many digressions from the Holy
Scriptures to be able to count them all.
Was man
created because God was lonely or was man created
for God's entertainment?
Neither, apparently man was created to glorify God and one day to dwell with God eternally.
I want to know about sowing seed and the deeper meanings of it. I've just been getting general answers.
The best example of sowing seed in the scripture I can think of is the parable of the sower found in Matthew 13:1-23; Mark 4:1-20 and Luke 8: 4-15. In this parable Jesus is likening the preaching of the word of God to that of a farmer going out into his field and sowing seed. In the parable the lesson is much on the type of soil as it is the sowing of the seed both of which are extremely important in obtaining a good harvest.
What is speaking in tongues?
Speaking in tongues has reference to speaking a language that one has not studied. God enabled the apostles most of whom had little education to speak whatever language their audience understood without having studied the language. This greatly facilitated the spreading of the word and it also was convincing to their hearers that their message indeed was from God.
Is there anything in the Bible concerning wealth? If you could give me a direction in the Bible to start I'd really appreciate it.
There are several references to wealth and
those who had wealth. The scriptures never condemn having wealth or making all
the money one can honestly make, they do, however, condemn making wealth one's
main goal in life. Joseph of Arimathaea was a rich man who assisted in the
burial of Jesus and gave his own hewn sepulcher for Jesus' burial and we
nowhere find him condemned for his wealth (Matthew 27:57-61; Mark 15:42-47;
John 19:38-42). The rich young
ruler, however, stands condemned because he loved his riches more than God
(Matthew 19:16-26; Mark 10:17-27; Luke 18:18-27). In Luke 16:19-31 we find a
rich man going to hell, not because he was wealthy but because he
apparently placed more importance on his wealth and what it could do for him
than he did in serving God.
What does the bible say about gossiping. Explanation with the scriptures will do.
The term "gossip" is not found in the scriptures, but other words meaning the same are found such as talebearer and tattler. The evil of talebearing is found in such passages as Leviticus 19:16; Proverbs 11:13; 18:8; 20:19; 26:20,22 and tattler is found in 1 Timothy 5:13. In all these passages the evil of such is pointed out.
What was
the sign and significance of God's covenant with Abraham?
The sign of God's covenant with Abraham was circumcision of all of Abraham's male descendants through his son Isaac. This was the sign of the fleshly covenant with Abraham that through his seed all nations of the earth would be blessed. In Galatians 3:16 the apostle Paul writes, "Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to thy seeds which are many; but as of one, And to thy seed which is Christ.
Where was the tabernacle located when Israel was encamped or en route?
The tabernacle was located in the middle of the camp of the Israelites wherever they were encamped on their journey to Canaan. In the forty years they were in the wilderness they encamped in many places and the tabernacle was always set up in the midst of the camp.
I know the Father Son and Holy Spirit
are the same but different. We are to pray to the
Father through Jesus Christ his son. He will sit on the right
hand of the Father in heaven. But yet, I've been told that they are the
same? How can this be?
Also, we are made in the image of God, but he is a Spirit? Does
he have facial and bodily features as we do? When he
walked in the cool of the evening in Genesis -
does it mean that he
had a body?
God the Father, the Holy Spirit, and the Christ are not the
same. They are three different personalities and
they are not described as the same but they are
described as being one. That is there is perfect unity and harmony
among them, they are one in design, purpose and essence. We know that
husband and wife are one yet they are two distinct personalities. While
they are two individuals they are one flesh. When a marriage is
consummated in the sexual relationship they become
one. So think of the relationship of the Godhead as
three different personalities, yet they are one and work in
perfect harmony together..
To be made in the image of God did not mean that man was made to look like
God. God is Spirit (John 4:24,25) and a spirit cannot not be seen by
the naked eye. We are in the image of God in that we
are eternal spirits and immortal souls just as God
is. We have certain qualities similar to those of
God but not in the same measure. We have intellect, we have creative
ability for example look at all the things man has invented due to such
ability, however, we cannot create something
from nothing like God did, but there is creative
ability. These are things in which we are in the image of
God and not physical appearance because God is not physical.
As to God walking the Garden, apparently the Almighty assumed some form
analogous to the human form which was made in His image. It was
certainly within God's power to take the form of
some creature that was visible to the human eye. We
gather from the description of the occasion we assume he took
the form of man but we are not told that Adam and Eve saw him but
rather heard His voice as He moved through the
garden. Since they realize now that they have sinned
they are trying to hide from him, but try as they might
they were found out and had to explain their actions. Such language is
probably used in order for man to be able to more easily comprehend
what has taken place.
Are there saved people in denominational churches such as the Baptists?
People get into most denominations by joining on their own
volition. The saved folks are those who have heard
the Word of God (Romans 10:17), they believe that
Jesus Christ is the Son of God (Acts 8:26-40 note especially
verses 36 & 37), they have repented of their sins (Acts 2:37,38) and
they have been baptized for the remission of sins
(Acts 2:38; Acts 22:16). When one has done all these
things the Lord adds him to the church (Acts 2:41,
47). Read also Romans 6:1-4, 16,17; Galatians 3:26,27. After one has been
saved from past sins one has to continue faithfully in the Lord's
service to
be saved eternally. Baptists do not baptize for the remission of sins. In
fact they ask a candidate if God for Christ's sake has pardoned him of
his sins and if the candidate answers in the
affirmative then the church votes on the "saved"
person as to whether he can join the church and if they vote
in the affirmative they will then set a date on which they will baptize
the individual into the Baptist church because he
has already been saved from his/sins. This process
is foreign to the scriptures.
To continue faithfully in the Lord's service one must live soberly,
righteously and godly (Titus 2:11,12). This would include worshipping
regularly, and properly according to the scriptures (John 4:24,25).
There is no scriptural authority for the use of
mechanical instruments of music in worship. We are
told to sing , but we are not told to play and sing
(Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16). God desires expression from the human
heart not an entertainment session. God's plan for worship does not
require a skill based on talent. Scriptural worship
also requires partaking of the Lord's Supper
(communion) every Lord's day (Acts 20:7). Read also 1
Corinthians 11:23-29.
Study these scriptures and others and you will have no trouble determining
where the true Christians are found.
I am having a hard time with the fact that my half brother married my father's niece. My half brother was raised by my mother and father living in the same household as us. We all was very close and his last name was changed to my father's name when he was just three years old. Is it scriptural for him to be married to our first cousin. Even though he isn't a blood relative he was raised that way. This was very hurtful for our entire family. We continue to talk but it is a strain. My mother has taken the attitude that we have to just accept them now as husband and wife. The bad thing is that they have a little girl that is my niece and cousin not to mention that she is our father's granddaughter/niece. I can find peace with all this if I know it isn't against God word.
As long as the marriage does not violate your state law, then there is not a problem. Abraham was married to his half sister. There is no regulation given in the scripture about close kin marriage. The only thing even akin to such was the case where a man in Corinth had taken his father's wife (apparently his stepmother), and Paul reprimanded the church severely for apparently approving this situation and said such immorality was not even found among the heathen Gentiles (1 Corinthians 5:1-8). From what you indicate about this situation we see no violation of scripture.
We have a radio choir
that perform at different singing engagements, the
Labor Day Lectureship, and sometime for our congregation after worship
service. This seems to send a mixed
message to the world but the Church is saying that
since this isn't during worship service it is ok for
the choir to perform for us. My understanding is that we all should sing
and that anything praising God is worship; also are ceremonies honoring
the minister and other groups ok.
It is the opinion of this respondent that as long as the group
singing is doing so without instrumental
accompaniment there is no sin in singing for a group
outside of the worship service. Such singing can go a long way in
showing the public that one does not have to have instrumental music to
accompany singing. In fact it speaks loudly in demonstrating the
unsurpassed beauty of the human voice. Such singing can serve to teach as
well as encourage and comfort the hearer. If such is a sin it would be
a sin anytime one sings a religious song in private.
We often sing to ourselves when we are happy and
quite often these songs are religious songs, take a
look at James 5:13 which indicates a singular individual singing
which would not apparently be in the worship service.
As to having ceremonies honoring ministers or various groups, we see no problem with this if they are not a part of the worship. However, there would be nothing wrong even in the worship to commend someone for the good they have done, but as to having special ceremonies in the worship we believe this may be putting men above the Lord to whom all our worship is to be directed. Much of this is going to be determined by the manner in which such recognition is given.
Is it ok for a husband and wife to decide because the wife bring in more income than the husband for him to give up his job and take care of the home and children.
In the situation involving a man and his wife and their living arrangements, that is to be for them to decide. If they are both comfortable with the husband staying at home and managing the household while the wife works then we cannot condemn the practice. If such is going to cause a problem in their relationship then it should not be done. The family is being provided for and if there are children at home they are being cared for by a loving parent rather than being placed under someone else's care. This is a private matter for the family involved to determine whether or not it is expedient.
I need clarification of church leadership i.e. Elders and Preachers. Does a preacher function the same as an Elder. We have a situation where preachers are functioning in dual roles. Members are told that if there is a church meeting and outside counsel is sought that the leadership will not sanction this, and if members attend this meeting it will be viewed as creating a division in the church.
No, preachers do not function as elders unless they have been appointed elders by the church. If they have been appointed to the Eldership then they would function in dual roles, however, as the preacher he would still have to serve in that capacity at the will of the other elders. Brethren should settle all their differences within the church and not go to court before non-believers (1 Corinthians 6:1-11).
If someone invites God into their heart, then a few years later still believes in God but does not live a life pleasing to God and doesn't claim to be a Christian anymore...would they go to hell even though they truly gave their life to God at one point in time?
One has to be faithful to God until death not just for a little while. Revelation 2:10
Please I want to understand the meaning of 1Cor.15:1,7,29
In 1 Corinthians 15:1 Paul is simply reminding them of the
gospel he had previously preached which they had
believed and were presently following was indeed the
truth of God. In verse 7 is referring the appearances of Jesus
after he was resurrected from the dead and before he ascended into
heaven. The James referred to in this verse is
apparently his half-brother (son of Mary and Joseph)
the same James that wrote the Epistle of James. His
brothers had not believed upon him before his death and resurrection but
afterward apparently two of them became firm believers in him as the
Christ.
Those two were James and Jude. Verse 29 has proven to be a difficult
passage for scholars everywhere but it seems the probable
interpretation is as follows: The apostle is
referring to baptism as administered to all
believers. This is the most common opinion and it is the most simple.
According to this, it means that they had been baptized with the hope
and
expectation of a resurrection of the dead. They had received this as one of
the leading doctrines of the gospel when they were baptized. It was a
part of their full and firm belief that the dead
would rise.
The argument according to this interpretation is that this was an essential article of the faith of a Christian; that it was embraced by all; that it constituted a part of their very profession; and that for any one to deny it was to deny that which entered into the very foundation of the Christian faith. It they embraced a different doctrine, if they denied the doctrine of the resurrection, they struck a blow at the very nature of Christianity, and dashed all the hopes which had been cherished and expressed at their baptism. And what could they do? What would become of them? What would be the destiny of all who were thus baptized? Was it to be believed that all their hopes at baptism were vain and that they would all perish? As such a belief could not be entertained, the apostle infers that, if they held to Christianity at all, they must hold to this doctrine as part of their very profession. According to this view, the phrased "for the dead" means, with reference to the dead; with direct allusion to the condition of the dead, and their hopes; with a belief that the dead will rise.
My wife has filed for legal separation because "trust" has been lost or damaged in our marriage. I have not had an affair or been unfaithful to my wife of 16 years. The separation includes decisions on child custody and division of assets therefore I plan on seeking a divorce. Assuming that a miracle does not happen and my wife and I are not reconciled am I free to re-marry from a biblical perspective?
No, neither you nor she would be permitted to marry again since fornication has not been committed by either party. Matthew 19:9. The only time one has a right to marry again after a divorce is when one's spouse has been unfaithful, then the innocent victim has a right to remarry. The guilty party never has the right to remarry. If neither party has been unfaithful then both parties in the divorce must remain single.
If a wife divorces her husband for
the cause of fornication, does she have the right to
remarry her former husband?
That depends. Was she scripturally divorced from the first husband? If not she did not have the right to contract a second marriage. Did the first husband marry again after the divorce? If the first marriage was dissolved because of fornication only the innocent party could have remarried. If the first marriage ended for some other cause, her first husband would be the only person to whom she could be married. If the first husband married again and had scriptural right to marry then he would not be allowed to remarry his first wife unless his second spouse had been unfaithful. So you see it is not a simple question to answer, not knowing the variables. If the first marriage was dissolved on other grounds other than fornication she could remarry the first husband because in God's sight that is her only proper spouse.
When we die, are we sleeping until Christ returns on the last day or do we go to heaven or hell immediately? I don't find where it specifically answers that.
We believe the account found in Luke 16:19-31 gives about the
best concise explanation that can be found. You will
note that the rich man following his death and
burial was very conscious in torment. Lazarus was at rest in
Abraham's bosom. Abraham's bosom is apparently the resting place of the
righteous awaiting the final awarding of eternal life in heaven. You
will note he is not sleeping but is enjoying good
things. The rich man is not sleeping but is in
torment and he is already suffering before final sentence
is passed by the supreme judge. Both of these men are receiving a
foretaste
of what is to be theirs for eternity. Do not be misled by the usual
reference to this as a parable. We believe it is an actual occurrence.
Note it is nowhere called a parable in the scriptures, and it describes
actual people and definite destinations. For obvious reasons the rich
man's name is not mentioned. For a similar
comparison for illustrative purposes only consider
the county jail is just a foretaste of what the state
penitentiary is like and the foyer of a mansion or palace is but a
foretaste of the grandeur of the rest of the abode.
I have been a member of the Lord's church for almost three years now, but I still have many questions and concerns. One question is about song groups. Is it scriptural to have a singing group that sings outside of the regular worship services but at other events and programs in the church? Also, I have been concerned about the issues on which I am not clear on, or those that I have not studied about yet. If I am displeasing to God, or practicing something unscriptural but am not aware of it, am I still held accountable? What does the Bible teach about these concerns?
We see no problem with a singing group performing at some
church sponsored activities outside of the worship
services. For instance at a dinner honoring teachers
or other faithful workers we would see no problem with a
quartet or chorus performing, but they should not be performing for a
worship service as all are instructed to sing and praise God.
Entertainment is one thing and worship is another.
The only times one might be forgiven for ignorant
actions is apparently when one is walking in the light or truth
of God's Word and commits some sin of which he or she is ignorant and
the
blood of Christ automatically cleanses one of the sin. (1 John 1:7). On the
other hand there is no mention of not being held accountable for
teaching error. This is one reason that Paul told
Timothy to study to show himself approved unto God
as a workman that needed not to be ashamed, rightly
dividing ( or handling aright) the word of truth. 2 Timothy 2:15
You stated on your website that there are errors in the NIV. Could you elaborate on that please? I'm not sending this email as a refutation of your statement, but rather out of curiosity.
There are numerous perversions of the scripture in the NIV and
we do not have the time or space to do a thorough
analysis of such with this e-mail. I would
recommend that you get the book, Challenging Dangers of Modern
Versions by Robert R. Taylor, Jr. It can be ordered from Taylor
Publications P. O. Box 464 Ripley, TN 38063
We will give just a couple of examples of some errors. In Matthew 5:32 and
19:9 the NIV says that no one should divorce his wife "except for
marital unfaithfulness." In the KJV and the ASV both
have fornication here. The Greek word is porneia and
means "Prostitution, unchastity, fornication, of
every kind of unlawful intercourse" (including sodomy). The NIV is a much
weaker and less accurate rendering of the Greek original. The NIV has
this untenable rendering in Acts 2:31, "Seeing what
was ahead, he spoke of the resurrection of the
Christ, that he was not abandoned to the grave, nor did
his body undergo decay." The spirit of Jesus did not go into the grave
when Joseph and Nicodemus buried him late that
Friday afternoon, the day of his crucifixion; it
went into Hades and the very part of the Hadean realm known
as Paradise or Abraham's bosom. (Luke 16:22; 23:43) There are numerous
other errors you can read about in the book recommended.
I am deeply confused as to which religion I belong to. My dad is a Jew and my mother is a Roman Catholic, however I find myself drawn to the Christian religion. I feel awkward being in a catholic setting but I feel at home in a Christian setting. I believe in God and in Jesus. I just don't understand my religious beliefs yet. Is there anything wrong with having three different religions?
We can understand somewhat your confusion because of your
attachment to your parents and your innate desire to
be acceptable to both, however, your chief
responsibility is to yourself and your own salvation. Jesus taught that we
are to love God more than family (Matthew 10:37). Your need is to search
the scriptures, especially the New Testament. The application of the
Old Testament scriptures came to an end with the
death of Jesus on the cross (Colossians 2:14). With
the end of the Law of Moses came the New Testament
(Law of Christ) which applies to the present age. You will not find the
Catholic church mentioned in the scriptures, but you will find the
church spoken of frequently. Jesus spoke extensively
about His church that would be forthcoming after His
death (Matthew 16:18). Oh, by the way when Jesus
told Peter, "upon this rock I will build my church" he was not saying he
would build it on Peter, rather on the truth Peter had just confessed
that Jesus was the Christ, the Son of the living
God. We know He was not referring to Peter when He
said, "Thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will
build my church;..." because the word for Peter in the Greek is Petros which
is masculine in gender and means a small stone. The word translated
rock in this passage is from the Greek word Petra
which is feminine in gender and means a ledge of
rock. That ledge of rock is the fact that Jesus is the
Son of the living God Peter had just confessed. We will be happy to
assist you in further study of the Word of God and
your pursuit of Christianity. You are on the
right track and we pray you will that you will find your home
in the family of the Lord.
Taking these text into consideration Isa.65: 17, Isa.66 :22, Rev .21 :1 , Please explain 2 Pet.3 :13. I this a promise of a new heaven & a new earth.
All of the references cited are speaking of the new dwelling
place that will be enjoyed by the saved in eternity.
He has to speak to man in terms man understands. Man
has always known the earth as his dwelling place and it is
situated under the heavens (the sun, moon, stars, clouds, etc. Man
could not conceive of any other type dwelling place
so the abode of the righteous in eternity is
referred to as the new heavens and the new earth. John, in
Revelation 21:1 saw vision of what that abode was and thus spoke of it
and he also mentions that the former abode of man
existed no more and in the new
abode there was no sea as had been known before the end of time. When Peter
writes in 2 Peter 3:13 he is looking forward to that new dwelling place
where there will be no more sin and righteousness will reign supremely.
I am currently going through a
situation where I want to join a new church where I
believe God wants me. My mother has forbidden me to go. I want to
know if any where in the bible does it say for parents to let go and
let their child (21) live their life.
Is it anywhere in the bible that a particular church is not for everyone.
You are an adult by all standards (at least in age) and it is
high time that you stand on your own feet. There is
no place in the Bible telling parents to let go, but
by this time in your life you should be able to make your own
decisions. If you are still living at home with mother, especially if
she or your parents are providing food and shelter
you may have a hard time
living your own life. You need to get out on your own and learn to live
independently now or you will be a social and emotional cripple the
rest of your life. The moving out may be painful,
but it is necessary if you have not already done so,
or if you are not able to support yourself.
As to the church you choose that is entirely up to you, but I would urge you
to study the scriptures to see what the New Testament teaches about the
Lord's church. I would urge you to investigate the churches of Christ
as their goal is to teach and practice only that
which is in accord with the Word of God. They have
no man made creeds or church manuals, there is no
earthly hierarchy because Christ is their king and also the head of the
church. If you want more information about the churches of Christ you
can obtain such from this website.